First off, thanks for reading!
My wife and I visited Breckenridge, CO this weekend and attended your usual timeshare presentation. It may be important for me to mention that the company is a "developer" and we had been there about 6 months prior, declined the offer, but purchased a "sampling" for $995. The deal included a weekend stay at Breck in a 2 bedroom suite, free massages for 2, $75 in gift certificates for resort restaurants and access to one "getaway" for gold member prices.
Prior to yesterday's session I read several articles about purchasing used timeshares versus new, including one from ABC News, which referenced this forum. The theme off all the articles was that you would be crazy to buy new when used can be had at a fraction of he new purchase price.
When presenting this to our saleswoman who was VERY good, she rebuttaled with the following:
1) the development company has the right to purchase the property prior to closing and then add back into their property (when I asked if the property was free and clear how that could be done legally, she did no as address the question)
2). You are not entitled to certain benefits such as "gold status" and you cannot take advantage of their "getaway" program which allows you great prices on hotels and resorts.
3)You are always in the back of the "queue" for scheduling
When asked where in the paperwork of an original sale this was, the saleswoman pointed out the following clause:
"The club membership rights specified above are conditioned upon acceptance of your offer to purchase during your initial visit to the xxxxxxxxx. These club membership rights are only available by purchasing your ownership DIRECTLY from xxxxxxxxxxxx.
Is this true? How is it legal if true? We own zero timeshares, are interested, but why buy new if used can be had much, much cheaper. However, if benefits are lost this may change things.
My wife and I visited Breckenridge, CO this weekend and attended your usual timeshare presentation. It may be important for me to mention that the company is a "developer" and we had been there about 6 months prior, declined the offer, but purchased a "sampling" for $995. The deal included a weekend stay at Breck in a 2 bedroom suite, free massages for 2, $75 in gift certificates for resort restaurants and access to one "getaway" for gold member prices.
Prior to yesterday's session I read several articles about purchasing used timeshares versus new, including one from ABC News, which referenced this forum. The theme off all the articles was that you would be crazy to buy new when used can be had at a fraction of he new purchase price.
When presenting this to our saleswoman who was VERY good, she rebuttaled with the following:
1) the development company has the right to purchase the property prior to closing and then add back into their property (when I asked if the property was free and clear how that could be done legally, she did no as address the question)
2). You are not entitled to certain benefits such as "gold status" and you cannot take advantage of their "getaway" program which allows you great prices on hotels and resorts.
3)You are always in the back of the "queue" for scheduling
When asked where in the paperwork of an original sale this was, the saleswoman pointed out the following clause:
"The club membership rights specified above are conditioned upon acceptance of your offer to purchase during your initial visit to the xxxxxxxxx. These club membership rights are only available by purchasing your ownership DIRECTLY from xxxxxxxxxxxx.
Is this true? How is it legal if true? We own zero timeshares, are interested, but why buy new if used can be had much, much cheaper. However, if benefits are lost this may change things.